In light of the theory proposed in the previous post, let’s evaluate Thomas Sowell’s assertion that:

Blacks were not enslaved because they were black but because they were available. Slavery has existed in the world for thousands of years.

Whites enslaved other whites in Europe for centuries before the first black was brought to the Western hemisphere. …

Well, everyone was “available.” What kind of an inane explanation is that?

No, blacks were enslaved long after slavery among the whites was abolished, not because they were available, but because their comparatively low IQ, high time preferences, and moral debasement made it more difficult for them to be useful to society as free workers.

They were hard put to prove responsive to the incentives of capitalism to become highly skilled — and thus highly important factors of production in the economic order, because of their natural racial limitations. Society did not feel for a long time, and rightly so, that free blacks would contribute to it a great deal more than enslaved blacks. Therefore, freeing them took longer to accomplish than freeing non-blacks.


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